MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman

MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman

MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman

The i-Human scenario below is designed to help you move through a simulated clinical patient scenario. Your work will be scored by i-Human rubric below and transferred to a grade in the gradebook by faculty. This Assignment is worth 100 points.

Grading criteria for Assignment are:

History = 30

Physical Exam = 30

Differential Diagnosis = 15

Rank Differential Diagnosis = 10

Test Selection = 15

The follow up review i-Human Seminar will be held in Unit 9 and is mandatory either by live attendance or review of recording and alternative assignment. This Seminar is worth 20 points.

For this Activity, you will need to log in to your i-Human account. MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman. Instructions for logging in are as follows:

Go to https://ih2.i-human.com/.

Log in with your credentials (username and password).

Select “Assignments” from the menu options on the top left of the screen.

Press the green play button next to the Mr. Tyson case study.

The case study will open; click Start to begin.

Complete all elements of the case study (history, physical exam, assessment, etc.).

Once you have successfully completed the Assignment, take a screenshot of the last screen of the activity, paste it into a Microsoft Word document, save your document, and Submit your Assignment to the unit Dropbox before midnight on the last day of the unit.

For help creating a screenshot, visit the website below. MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Take a Screenshot. Retrieved from http://www.take-a-screenshot.org

MN 568 Unit 2 Exam

Question 1 0 / 2 points

Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure?

Question options:

a)

0 to 7 mm Hg

b)

8 to 21 mm Hg

c)

22 to 40 mm Hg

d)

40 to 80 mm Hg

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Which obstructive lung disease is classified as reversible?

Question options:

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

COPD

Question 3 0 / 2 points

A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

Question options:

a)

The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.

b)

The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.

c)

Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.

d)

Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Heart valve damage resulting from acute rheumatic fever is a long-term sequelae resulting from infection with which of the following pathogens? MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Question options:

a)

Coxsackievirus

b)

Cytomegalovirus

c)

Francisella tularensis

d)

Group A streptococcus

Question 5 2 / 2 points

The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection?

Question options:

a)

HSV type 2

b)

HIV

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Syphilis

Question 6 0 / 2 points

Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:

Question options:

a)

0 to 5 mcg/mL

b)

5 to 10 mcg/mL

c)

5 to 15 mcg/mL

d)

10 to 20 mcg/mL

Question 7 0 / 2 points

African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

Question options:

a)

Inhaled corticosteroids

b)

Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c)

Leukotriene receptor agonists

d)

Oral corticosteroids

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?

Question options:

a)

The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.

b)

Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.

c)

Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.

d)

Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

Question options:

a)

He should stop smoking today.

b)

He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c)

His quit date should be in 1 week.

d)

He will be ready to quit after the first 30 days.

Question 10 2 / 2 points

The forced vital capacity is decreased in:

Question options:

a)

Asthma

b)

Chronic bronchitis

c)

Emphysema

d)

Restrictive disease

MN 568 Unit 4 Exam

Question 1 0 / 2 points

Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain? MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Question options:

a)

The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.

b)

Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,

c)

He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.

d)

All of the above

Question 2 2 / 2 points

A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?

Question options:

a)

Very early

b)

3 to 4 hours after perforation

c)

Late in inflammation

d)

Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.

Question 3 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?

Question options:

a)

Gastroenteritis

b)

Inflammatory bowel disease

c)

Lactase deficiency

d)

All of the above

Question 4 0 / 2 points

If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?

Question options:

a)

Peptic ulcer

b)

Hiatal hernia

c)

Costochondritis

d)

Pericarditis

Question 5 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?

Question options:

a)

Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea

b)

Wakens at night with diarrhea

c)

History of international travel

d)

All of the above

Question 6 2 / 2 points

In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped? MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Question options:

a)

First-degree AV block

b)

Second-degree Mobitz I AV block

c)

Second-degree Mobitz II AV block

d)

Third-degree AV block

Question 7 2 / 2 points

For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?

Question options:

a)

6 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

10 hours

d)

12 hours

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?

Question options:

a)

Malabsorption

b)

Constipation

c)

Rectal bleeding

d)

Esophageal ulceration

Question 9 2 / 2 points

A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?

Question options:

a)

CBC with differential

b)

Urine human chorionic gonadotropin

c)

Barium enema

d)

Computed tomography of the abdomen

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

Question options:

a)

Greater than 30

b)

Greater than 40

c)

Greater than 50

d)

Greater than 60

MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman

MN 568 Unit 6 Exam

Question 1 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen with a sudden onset of flank pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. In addition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should be added to the list of differential diagnoses?

Question options:

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Peptic ulcer disease

c)

Diverticulitis

d)

All of the above

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment for a patient with mild BPH?

Question options:

a)

Refer to a urologist for surgery.

b)

Prescribe a trial of tamsulosin.

c)

Recommend cranberry supplements.

d)

Reevaluate symptoms in 1 to 3 months.

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions? MN 568 Unit 10 Discussion Assignment Essay Papers.

Question options:

a)

Repeat the test.

b)

Refer to a nephrologist.

c)

Measure the serum protein.

d)

Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin?

Question options:

a)

0.05% liquid formulation

b)

0.1% cream

c)

1% foam

d)

0.02% cream

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following clinical manifestations are consistent with a patient in ARF?

Question options:

a)

Pruritis

b)

Glycosuria

c)

Irritability

d)

Hypotension

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is an infraorbital fold skin manifestation in a patient with atopic dermatitis?

Question options:

a)

Keratosis pilaris

b)

Dennie’s sign

c)

Keratoconus

d)

Pityriasis alba

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The patient with BPH is seen for follow-up. He has been taking finasteride (Proscar) for 6 months. The clinician should assess this patient for which of these side effects?

Question options:

a)

Erectile dysfunction

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Hypotension

d)

Headache

Question 8 2 / 2 points

When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and colorless. What do you suspect?

Question options:

a)

A piece of hair or a thread

b)

Hyphae

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Spores

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection Which of the following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D? MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Question options:

a)

Vagistat vaginal cream

b)

Monistat combination pack

c)

Terazol vaginal cream

d)

Diflucan, 150 mg

Question 10 2 / 2 points

A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?

Question options:

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Beets

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Red meat

MN 568 Unit 8 Exam

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 2 2 / 2 points

Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?

Question options:

a)

Insulin

b)

Metformin

c)

Glucotrol

d)

Precose

Question 3 2 / 2 points

After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

Question options:

a)

Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation.

b)

Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan.

c)

Send her for acupuncture treatments.

d)

All of the above

Question 4 2 / 2 points

Sam is a 25-year-old who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?

Question options:

a)

Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine

b)

Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain

c)

Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate

d)

Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 5 2 / 2 points

John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear? MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Question options:

a)

Valgus stress test

b)

McMurray circumduction test

c)

Lachman test

d) Varus stress test . MN568 Full Course Discussion Assignment Papers.

Question 6 2 / 2 points

The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs?

Question options:

a)

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.”

b)

“You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.”

c)

“You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.”

d)

“It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.”

Question 7 2 / 2 points

The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs?

Question options:

a)

Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury

b)

Development of marked ankle swelling and discoloration after the injury

c)

Crepitation with palpation or movement of the ankle

d)

All of the above

Question 8 2 / 2 points

The clinician finds numerous nodules on the thyroid of a 65-year-old woman. The clinician suspects thyroid cancer. Which of the following data would be most significant for this patient?

Question options:

a)

A history of tonsillectomy in the 1940s

b)

Recent exposure to mumps

c)

Vegetarian diet

d)

Allergy to iodine

Question 9 2 / 2 points

A vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

Question options:

a)

Rice

b)

Carrots

c)

Spinach

d) Potatoes. MN 568 Unit 6 Discussion Assignment Essays.

Question 10 2 / 2 points

One of the most frequent presenting signs/symptoms of osteoporosis is:

Question options:

a)

Goiter

b)

Abnormal serum calcium

c)

Elevated urine biochemical markers

d)

Bony fracture

Question 11 2 / 2 points

After 6 months of Synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

Question options:

a)

Elevated TSH

b)

Normal TSH

c)

Low TSH

d)

Undetectable TSH

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

Question options:

a)

Decreased C-reactive protein

b)

Hyperalbuminemia

c)

Morning stiffness

d)

Weight gain

Question 13 2 / 2 points

The clinician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol) for a diabetic patient. Which statement made by the patient would indicate that your teaching has been effective?

Question options:

a)

“I’ll take my pill at least 30 minutes before breakfast.”

b)

“I’ll take my Glucotrol before bedtime.”

c)

“It is important to take my medication right after I eat.”

d)

“Since I only like to eat two meals a day, I can take the pill between my meals.”

Question 14 2 / 2 points

The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.

Question options:

a) True

b) False

Question 15 2 / 2 points

Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

Question options:

a)

The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.

b)

Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome, because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.

c)

Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.

d)

All of the above

MN 568 Unit 10 Final

Question 1 2 / 2 points

Which statement about confusion is true?

Question options:

a)

Confusion is a disease process.

b)

Confusion is always temporary.

c)

Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.

d)

Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

Question 2 0 / 2 points

Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

Question options:

a)

Meclizine

b)

Diphenhydramine

c)

Diamox

d)

Promethazine

Question 3 2 / 2 points

The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

Question options:

a)

No activity at all

b)

A blank stare

c)

Urine is usually voided involuntarily

d)

The attack usually lasts several minutes

Question 4 2 / 2 points

How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?

Question options:

a)

Every 3 months

b)

Every 6 months

c)

Annually

d)

Whenever there is a problem

Question 5 2 / 2 points

Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)? MN 568 Unit 8 Assignment Essay Paper – iHuman.

Question options:

a)

A teenage male

b)

A 65-year-old male

c)

A 25-year-old female

d)

A 60-year-old female

Question 6 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is a specific test to MS?

Question options:

a)

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

b)

Computed tomography (CT) scan

c)

A lumbar puncture

d)

There is no specific test.

Question 7 2 / 2 points

Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

Question options:

a)

Cholinesterase inhibitors

b)

Anxiolytics

c)

Antidepressants

d)

Atypical antipsychotics

Question 8 2 / 2 points

Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?

Question options:

a)

Epidural hematoma

b)

Subdural hematoma

c)

Subarachnoid hematoma

d)

Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Question 9 2 / 2 points

Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

Question options:

a)

CN V

b)

CN VII

c)

CN IX

d)

CN X

Question 10 2 / 2 points

Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

Question options:

a)

It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.

b)

A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.

c)

A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.

d)

The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 11 2 / 2 points

Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

Question options:

a)

A female in her reproductive years

b)

A 40-year-old African American male

c)

A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily

d)

A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 12 2 / 2 points

Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

Question options:

a)

Dementia

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

Delirium

Question 13 2 / 2 points

Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?

Question options:

a)

Purulent meningitis

b)

Chronic meningitis

c)

Aseptic meningitis

d)

Herpes meningitis

Question 14 2 / 2 points

Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis? MN568 Full Course Discussion Assignment Papers.

Question options:

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

d)

An initial lumbar puncture

Question 15 2 / 2 points

What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

Question options:

a)

A stabbing pain on one small area of the body

b)

A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

c)

A pain that is worse upon awakening

d)

A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 16 1 / 1 point

Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

Question options:

a)

“Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”

b)

“Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”

c)

“Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”

d)

“You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 17 2 / 2 points

Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

Question options:

a)

“L-dopa is neuroprotective.”

b)

“The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”

c)

“This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”

d)

“This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 18 2 / 2 points

Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?

Question options:

a)

Resting tremor

b)

Bradykinesia

c)

Rigidity

d)

Postural instability

Question 19 2 / 2 points

Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?

Question options:

a)

Light sensitivity

b)

Pulsatile pain

c)

Sound sensitivity

d)

Experiencing an aura

Question 20 2 / 2 points

Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?

Question options:

a)

The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.

b)

There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.

c)

Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.

d)

The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.

Question 21 2 / 2 points

Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?

Question options:

a)

Greater than 25%

b)

Greater than 50%

c)

Greater than 75%

d)

Only for 100% occlusion

Question 22 2 / 2 points

What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?

Question options:

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ticlopidine

c)

Clopidogrel

d)

Aspirin and clopidogrel

Question 23 2 / 2 points

Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?

Question options:

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

d)

EEG

Question 24 2 / 2 points

Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?

Question options:

a)

Sam-e

b)

Saint John’s Wort

c)

Melatonin

d)

Saw Palmetto

Question 25 0 / 2 points

Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?

Question options:

a)

Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube

b)

Determining if the patient can drive on the highway

c)

Asking the patient about a news event from the current week

d)

Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean

Question 26 2 / 2 points

About 90% of all headaches are?

Question options:

a)

Tension

b)

Migraine

c)

Cluster

d)

Without pathological cause

Question 27 2 / 2 points

Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder

Question options:

a)

Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.

b)

After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c)

Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.

d) These persons may drive but never alone. MN568 Full Course Discussion Assignment Papers

Question 28 2 / 2 points

Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?

Question options:

a)

Glatiramer acetate

b)

Natalizumab

c)

Fingolimod

d)

Glucocorticoids

Question 29 2 / 2 points

The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

Question options:

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Alzheimer’s disease

c)

A CVA

d)

Bell’s palsy

Question 30 2 / 2 points

A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?

Question options:

a)

Spinothalamic dysfunction

b)

Ratcheting

c)

Cogwheeling

d)

Hand tremors

Question 31 2 / 2 points

Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?

Question options:

a)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Huntington’s disease

Question 32 1 / 1 point

Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?

Question options:

a)

Guillain-Barré syndrome

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Delirium

Question 33 2 / 2 points

A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:

Question options:

a)

SLUMS

b)

MoCA

c)

FAST

d)

MMSE

Question 34 2 / 2 points

Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?

Question options:

a)

1 hour

b)

3 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

12 hours

Question 35 2 / 2 points

When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

Question options:

a) Tension

b) Migraine

c) Cluster

d) Stress